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Psa. 2:1-3...The enmity of kings foreordained...Acts 4:25-28
Psa. 2:2...To own the title, Anointed (Christ)...Acts 2:36
(1) Why are the nations in an uproar? And why do the peoples mutter in vain? (2) The kings of the earth stand up, and the rulers take counsel together, against YHWH, and against His anointed: (3) 'Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us.'
Ps. 2:6...His Character-Holiness...Jn. 8:46; Rev. 3:7
Ps. 2:6...To own the title King...Mt. 2:2
(6) 'Truly it is I that have established My king upon Zion, My holy mountain.'
Ps. 2:7...Declared the Beloved Son...Mt.
3:17
Psa. 2:7, 8...The Crucifixion and Resurrection intimated...Acts 13:29-33
(7) I will tell of the decree: YHWH said unto me: 'Thou art My son, this day have I begotten thee. (8) Ask of Me, and I will give the nations for thine inheritance, and the ends of the earth for thy possession.
Psa. 2:12...Life comes through faith in Him...Jn. 20:31
Psalm 2 - Why are the nations in an uproar? And why do the peoples mutter in vain? The kings of the earth stand up, and the rulers take counsel together, against YHWH, and against His anointed: 'Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us.' He who sits in heaven laughs, the Lord shall mock them. Then He will speak to them in His wrath, and affright them with his rage: I anointed My king upon Zion, My holy mountain.' I will tell of the decree: YHWH said to me: 'You are My son, today I have begotten you. Ask of Me, and I will give the nations for your inheritance, and the ends of the earth for your possession. You shall break them with a rod of iron; you shall smash them in pieces like a potter's vessel.' Now therefore, O kings, act wisely; let yourselves be corrected, you judges of the earth. Serve YHWH with fear, and rejoice with trembling. Equip yourself with purity, lest He be angry, and you perish in the way, when suddenly His wrath is kindled. Happy are all they that take refuge in Him.
Is this a messianic text? Hmmmm .... Well it talks about an anointed one, and it appears to be talking about a king. But is it referring to the future? Can it apply to Yeshua?
King David most likely wrote this psalm. There is the first major problem for the futuristic view concerning this psalm, since considering that it is a poem using figurative language (and thus doesn't need to be taken hyper-literally) everything in it can apply to David. He was an anointed one, a mashiach, a king, had to deal with nations and kings coming against him such as the Philistines, the king of Zobah, and people in his own country (2 Sam 5:17; 8:3), and he is called the firstborn of YHWH in another psalm (Psa 89:21,29 [Christian versions verses 20,28]), so we don't even need to go to another book of the Tanakh to prove that. He was even set in Mt. Zion (2 Sam 5:7). When it talks about giving the nations for his inheritance, and the end of the earth for a possession it was fulfilled in 2 Sam 7:1,9 and 1 Chronicles 14:17. The nations were supposed to be affiliated in purity or else YHWH would get angry and smash them all out of the way. [Note: beware of the severely mistranslated phrase "kiss the son", which, although it could talk about David still, is an attempt to put an Aramaic meaning on a single word in a collection of psalms which are all composed in Hebrew]
Now David, being the probable writer of the psalm, is the most likely candidate for its anointed one. Even the phrase "This day I have begotten you" can apply to David and not to a literal god-child considering its use in Deut 32:18 where YHWH begets Israel.
Does this psalm have anything to do with Yeshua? It says that this anointed one (which, by the way, it is important Yeshua was never anointed with oil like normal kings were) would rule the nations and that they would try to defeat his rule. But he never had any rulership in his life and didn't have enough authority over the nations for kings to consider him much at all. There is no sign that he's ruling now. And when was he set in Zion? That never happened either.
According to the context, it is most logical that this passage is about King David (who was anointed). It is also important to note that Solomon is referred to as YHWH's son in both 2 Sam. 7:14 and 1 Chr. 22:7-10.
The plain meaning of this psalm is not messianic. If there is anything messianic about it, then it doesn't apply to Yeshua.
Psa. 8:2...The mouths of babes perfect His praise...Mt. 21:16
Psalm 8:2-3 (2) O YHWH, our Lord, how glorious is Thy name in all the earth! Whose majesty is rehearsed above the heavens.(3) Out of the mouth of babies and sucklings, You have founded strength, because of Your adversaries; that You might put an end to the enemy and the avenger.
Not focusing on the point that the phrase "perfected his praise" is NOT in the Hebrew, but in another translation (an ancient Greek translation), is this messianic verse? Not at all! This is a song of praise not a prophecy. It simply states that YHWH uses the weak things to confound the strong, like the way he chose Israel (Deut 7:7) and David, the youngest son of Jesse (1 Sam 16). The most glorious battles come when the weak, due the strength of YHWH, over come the mighty nations.
So this is not a messianic text at all.
Psa. 8:5, 6...His humiliation and exaltation...Lu. 24:50-53; 1 Cor. 15:27
Psalm 8:5-6 (5) What is man, that You remember him? and the son of man, that You pay attention to him? (6) Yet you have made him but a little lower than the angels, and have crowned him with glory and honour.
Is this a messianic prophecy? Not at all! I think the writer of this Psalm is ingenious. I mean, think about it. First he praises YHWH for the fact that he uses the small things of the world to stand against the strong, and then in some wonderful way he realises how small he and the rest of mankind is and he wonders how great YHWH could think on something as small as us, yet he gives us so much dominion (Gen 1:28).
No, this is not a messianic prophecy. It may be someone trying to apply their own meaning to the verse, but they are changing the meaning from its original intention that is not messianic at all.
Psa. 16:10...Was not to see corruption...Acts 2:31
Psa. 16:9-11...Was to arise from the dead...Jn. 20:9
Psalm 16:8-11 I have set YHWH always before me; surely He is at my right hand, I shall not be moved. Therefore my heart was glad, and my glory rejoiced; my flesh also shall dwell in safety; For You will not abandon my soul to the nether-world; neither will You suffer Your devout one to see the pit. You cause me to know the path of life; in Your presence is fulness of joy, in Your right hand bliss for evermore.
Is this a messianic text? Not likely, since the simplest way of looking at the whole psalm is that it is from David and he is talking about himself. It can be taken as David's hope of deliverance and restoration in his life, and seeing verse 10 as poetry and figurative, or it could speak of David's hope in a resurrection. If we take the latter, that is not fulfilled at all. David is still dead. But there is nothing distinctly or unambiguously messianic about it, in its plain meaning.
Can it speak about Yeshua? Hmmmm ..... Let's see. In the second verse we have the writer saying, "You are my Lord, I have no good but in thee". That would be kind of troubling to the idea of Yeshua being YHWH. Is YHWH saying, "I have no good but in thee"? Seems like nonsense. And if it we take it simply as Yeshua being the human messiah, then there is nothing in this verse to really tell us it is talking about him alone, as opposed to any righteous, devout person.
Also, did Yeshua not know the path of life? Didn't Yeshua know everything (apart from his own second coming, Matt 24:36)? Maybe he got lost somewhere.
This psalm is the words of the writer, most likely David, not someone else. David hasn't resurrected yet, so this prophecy is unfulfilled.
Psa. 17:15...The resurrection predicted...Lu. 24:6
Psalm 17:15 As for me, I shall behold Your face in righteousness; I shall be satisfied, when I awake, with Your likeness.
Resurrection of man is an idea we see throughout TaNaKh. There is nothing unambiguously messianic in this whole chapter and can refer to the hope of resurrection for any person who is devoted to the ways of the Most High, yet in adversity. There is nothing in it to point only to Yeshua, especially since these are the words of David, speaking about himself, as used as a Psalm to encourage others who go through the same ordeal. If we take it as coming from David and talking about him, then it is unfulfilled. If we take it as a song that others would sing throughout history, then it has no distinctive solely-messianic qualities, so it cannot be used as proof to point only to Yeshua.
Psa. 22:1...Forsaken because of sins of others...2
Cor. 5:21
Psa. 22:1...Words spoken from Calvary, "My God..."
Mk. 15:34
(1) For the Leader; upon Aijeleth ha-Shahar. A Psalm of David. (2) My God, my God, why hast Thou forsaken me, and art far from my help at the words of my cry?
Psa. 22:2...Darkness upon Calvary...Mt. 27:45
(3) O my God, I call by day, but
Thou answerest not; and at night, and there is no surcease for me.
Psa. 22:7...They shoot out the lip and shake the head...Mt. 27:39.
(8) All they that see me laugh me
to scorn; they shoot out the lip, they shake the head:
Psa. 22:8..."He trusted in God, let Him deliver Him"...Mt. 27:43
(9) 'Let him commit himself unto
YHWH! let Him rescue him; let Him deliver him, seeing He delighteth in him.'
Psa. 22:9......Born the Saviour......Lu. 2:7
(10) For Thou art He that took me
out of the womb; Thou madest me trust when I
was upon my mother's breasts.
Psa.
22:14...Died of a broken (ruptured)
heart...Jn.
19:34
Psa. 22:14,15...Suffered agony on Calvary...Mk.
15:34-37
Psa.
22:15........He thirsted........Jn. 19:28
(15) I am poured out like water, and all my bones are out of joint; my heart is become like wax; it is melted in mine inmost parts. (16) My strength is dried up like a potsherd; and my tongue cleaveth to my throat; and Thou layest me in the dust of death.
Psa. 22:16...They pierced His hands and His feet....Jn. 19:34, 37; 20:27
(17) For dogs have encompassed
me; a company of evil-doers have inclosed me; like a lion, they are at my hands and my feet.
Psa.
22:17, 18...Stripped Him before the
stares of men...Lu. 23:34,35
Psa.
22:18.....They parted His garments.....Jn. 19:23,24
(18) I may count all my bones; they look and gloat over me. (19) They part my garments among them, and for my vesture do they cast lots.
Psa. 22:20, 21...He committed Himself to God...Lu.23:46
Psa. 22:20, 21...Satanic power bruising the Redeemer's heel..Heb. 2:14
(21) Deliver my soul from the
sword; mine only one from the power of the dog. (22) Save me from the lion's
mouth; yea, from the horns of the wild-oxen do Thou answer me.
Psa. 22:22.....His Resurrection declared.....Jn. 20:17
(23) I will declare Thy name unto
my brethren; in the midst of the congregation will I praise Thee.
Psa. 22:27...He shall be the governor of the nations...Col 1:16
(28) All the ends of the earth
shall remember and turn unto YHWH; and all the kindreds of the nations shall worship before Thee.
Psa. 22:31......"It is finished"......Jn. 19:30
(32) They shall come and shall declare His righteousness unto a people that shall be born, that He hath done it.
The compiler of this list tried to cram as many "prophecies" as possible into this psalm. Unfortunately for him, it is a psalm of David. These are his words, his fears, his experiences. None of these things mean what is claimed. It's not a messianic prophecy.
Rather than reproduce the whole psalm, I'll just deal with it as a whole. I'm sure whoever is reading this should be able to find a bible somewhere and to read it for themselves.
Is this a messianic text? No! The only way it is a messianic text is because David, the writer and the one going through all those pains, was an anointed one and he was a king. Yeshua was neither.
Now Psalm 22 was written by David. So the very fact that the chapter uses pronouns such as "I" and "me" and "my" should tell the honest reader that the simplest understanding of this chapter is David speaking about himself. The first words saying "My Master, My Master, why have you forsaken me" could possibly be the words that Yeshua said on the cross, but that doesn't mean that the prophecy about him. I'm sure many people have died with scripture on their lips, and yet Christians don't give those people the honour of being a messiah.
In fact, since this chapter is poetry, a lot of people have gone through the same pains as David. It must be favouritism why the Christians choose to stick on Yeshua alone.
To show the inconsistency of the messianic list compiler we just need to look at one of his "prophecies". According to him, verse 9 (verse 10 in Jewish translations) prophecies that the messiah will be "born a saviour". But all it says is the following:
"For [it was] You who took me out of the womb; causing me to trust [when I was] upon my mother's breasts."
What a saviour! Not! It says nothing of the sort.
The compiler then says that the subject of the psalm "dies of a broken (ruptured) heart". The verse says, "I am poured out like water, and all my bones are out of joint; my heart is become like wax; it is melted in mine inmost parts." Right, so Yeshua's heart literally melted? Hmmmm ... I think a re-interpretation is in order. To be blunt, there is nothing about death in this verse. It speaks of weakness and pain. The phrase "my heart is become like wax; it is melted in my inmost parts" cannot justifiably be taken as the writer, or whoever is supposed to be prophecied about in this psalm, dying of a broken or rupture heart. Everything in this verse is figurative. If it is supposed to be talking about Yeshua, then the problem is that if any of Yeshua's bones were out of joint, then that would have been a blemish (to go with his other wounds) which would make him an unacceptable human sacrifice (assuming there actually is any acceptable human sacrifice which the Torah prohibits and gives no justification for).
Please tell me where the satanic power is bruising some redeemer's heel in verses 21-23 [20-22 in Christian versions]. That is simply read into the text.
Honestly, the writer of the Psalm, David, is describing a time of adversity that HE went through, not someone else, like some future messiah. Nothing in the text points to this being a prophecy. He feels forsaken; all his enemies gather round him and try to destroy him. He feels so weak, and famished that he can even see his own bones in order to count them (v18 [17]). He is a worm (v7 [6]) amongst lions and bulls (v13, 14 [12, 13]) showing how lowly he feels amongst such strong enemies. The context is not prophetic or messianic at all. It's a prayer of a desperate man.
There are two verses that need a look.
Verse 17 [16] has been mistranslated in Christian versions to read, "They pierced my hands and my feet". The Hebrew actually says "like a lion, my hands my feet" or, to give some clarification, "like a lion, [they are at] my hands and feet". This goes with the animal motif throughout the chapter and reflects the poetic parallelism in the verse where it could be seen as saying "for dogs have surrounded me; a company of evil-doers enclose me like a lion at my hands and feet". They are like lions mauling his limbs (ouch!).
Now there have been arguments that the word actually means, "they pierced", but this is based on a couple of mistakes.
1) The word is ka'ari (kaf, alef, resh, yodh). They try to say the word is actually a form of the word karah (kaf, resh, heh), meaning, "to dig", most likely karu (kaf, resh, waw - they dug). The word in Psalms 22:17 [16] is not the word meaning to dig. It is used 3 other places, and all of them are translated "like a lion" (Num 24:9; Isa 38:13; Ezek 22:25; Num 23:24).
2) Those that try to refer to the Dead Sea Scrolls with only find the same word "like a lion" with the final yodh a bit extended. It is still not a word meaning "to dig" or "to pierce". Plus, the scroll that they refer to is dated as late as the second century CE. The Septuagint isn't much help either. No one really knows who translated the Psalms into Greek, since the official Septuagint was only the five books of Moses. The rest of it is anyone's guess.
3) It is never used in the NT at all. This verse is not quoted, and for good reason.
The other verse is the verse about dividing garments in verse 19 [18]. If John was right to translate this verse and take it literally, then the Romans are weirder than we thought. Not only do they waste very expensive material by putting on the back of a Jewish rebel, but after they beat him to the point of bleeding, they then want to divide the garment he has been bleeding and sweating in while carrying his cross and cast lots for the bloody sweaty dirty thing (and I'm not swearing). They must have had good detergents back then since expensive material doesn't really react well to the staining effects of blood. There is some logic missing there.
Either way, when understood in context, this is not a messianic chapter. The NT may quote some of it, but they are just changing scripture from its original intent.
Psa. 23:1...."I am the Good Shepherd"....Jn. 10:11
Psalm 23:1 A Psalm of David. YHWH is my shepherd; I shall not want.
This psalm is not a prophecy, but a song of praise from David to YHWH. Notice it says YHWH is my shepherd, NOT Yeshua/Jesus is my shepherd. Two different names, two essentially different people!
Psa. 24:3......His exaltation predicted......Acts 1:11; Phil. 2:9
Psalm 24:1-4 A Psalm of David. The earth is YHWH'S, and the fulness thereof; the world, and they that dwell therein. For He has founded it upon the seas, and established it upon the floods. Who shall ascend into the mountain of YHWH? and who shall stand in His holy place? He that has clean hands, and a pure heart; who has not taken My name in vain, and has not sworn deceitfully.
Is this a messianic prophecy? No, there is nothing specific about it at all. It is just admonition that YHWH accepts those of clean hands and pure heart. The verse itself says absolutely nothing descriptive about the messiah. If anything, it's a call to righteousness.
Psa. 30:3......His resurrection predicted......Acts 2:32
Psalm 30:3 YHWH, you have brought up my soul from the grave: you have kept me alive, that I should not go down to the pit.
This has nothing to do with a resurrection. Just think context: this is a song traditionally accepted as written by David. Again David is saying "me" and "my" and "I", thus referring to himself. This is a song which means it is ill-advised to take it too literally. Nowhere in the text is there any notion or sign that it is a prophecy. There is no hint that it is about a future promised king descended from David.
So all we have is David is talking about being kept alive (vs. 4) or being rescued from a desparate situation. He's praising God. And it is a song for others to use for themselves as well, or that was used for worship. This doesn't apply to Yeshua, and isn't a messianic prophecy.
Psalm 31:5-6, 10-17 [4-5, 9-16] Bring me forth out of the net that they have hidden for me; for You are my stronghold. Into Your hand I commit my spirit; You have redeemed me, O YHWH, God of truth.
Be gracious unto me, O YHWH, for I am in distress; mine eye wastes away with vexation, my soul and my body. For my life is spent in sorrow, and my years in sighing; my strength fails because of my iniquity, and my bones are wasted away. Because of all my adversaries I am become a reproach, and to my neighbours exceedingly, and a dread to my acquaintance; they that see me outside flee from me. I have been forgotten as a dead man, out of mind; I am like a useless vessel. For I have heard the whispering of many, terror on every side; while they took counsel together against me, they devised to take away my life. But as for me, I have trusted in Thee, O YHWH; I have said: 'You are my God.' My times are in your hand; deliver me from the hand of my enemies, and from them that persecute me. Cause Your face to shine upon Your servant; save me by Your lovingkindness.
Once again, we have a psalm using "me" and "my" and "I". Can we guess who this chapter could be talking about? Yes, the human writer, who is most likely David! There is no sign that it is messianic. It especially cannot apply to a sinless Yeshua/Jesus since verse 11 [10] states that his strength fails because of his iniquity, and, according to Christian doctrine, Yeshua was supposed to be sinless. Is Yeshua like "a useless vessel"? Knowing the human condition, I'm sure a lot of people have been barraged by friend and enemy alike, and they could have even said this psalm to pray to YHWH.
Yeshua was not delivered from the hand of his enemies, so this doesn't even apply to him.
Psa. 34:20.....Not a bone of Him broken.....Jn 19:31-36
Psalm 34:18-23 [17-22] They cried out, and YHWH heard, and delivered them out of all their troubles. YHWH is close to them that are brokenhearted, and saves those of crushed spirit. Many are the evils [that happen to] the righteous, but YHWH shall deliver him out of them all. Guarding all his bones, not one of them is broken. Evil shall kill the wicked; and they that hate the righteous shall be held guilty. YHWH redeems the soul of His servants; and none of them that take refuge in Him shall be desolate.
Just looking at the little context we have here, there is something obvious from the very first word. It is not talking about a specific individual but all those who are righteous. This psalm affirms the principle that YHWH takes care of his own. Read the whole chapter and you will see that this is not a messianic text. You have to eradicate the context to come to that conclusion, or just read in your own messianic ideas.
Psa. 35:11....False witnesses rose up against Him....Mt. 26:59
Psa. 35:19...He was hated without a cause...Jn. 15:25
Psalm 35:11,19 Unrighteous witnesses rise up; they ask me of things that I know not.
Let not them that are wrongfully mine enemies rejoice over me; neither let them wink with the eye that hate me without a cause.
Is this a messianic prophecy? No! Read the context. It is full of the desire for vengeance. Does it apply to the peace-loving Yeshua who said, "Forgive them, Father, for they don't know what they do"? Doubtful. Either way, the psalm was written by David about the things he was going through, and its words hold true for so many people, it cannot simply point out or prove one messiah figure.
Psa. 38:11.....His friends stood afar off.....Lu. 23:49
Psalm 38:12 [v.11 in christian versions] My friends and my companions stand aloof from my plague; and my kinsmen stand afar off.
Once again, this is a song by David talking about his experiences. Nothing would lead us to think it was a messianic prophecy unless you already had that idea in your head.
Could it apply to Yeshua? Well, if you read the first 5 verses you will see the author saying that there is no health in his bones because of his sins, and that his iniquities are over his head. Wasn't Yeshua supposed to be a sinless sacrifice? These verses are not compatible with that idea.
Psa. 40:2-5...The joy of His resurrection predicted...Jn. 20:20
Psalm 40:3-6 [2-5] He brought me up also out of the tumultuous pit, out of the miry clay; and He set my feet upon a rock, He established my goings. And He has put a new song in my mouth, praise unto our Master; many shall see, and fear, and shall trust in YHWH. Happy is the man that has set YHWH as his trust, and has not turned unto the arrogant, nor those that fall away treacherously. Many things have You done, O YHWH my Master, even Thy wonderful works, and Thy thoughts toward us; there is none to be compared unto Thee! If I would declare and speak of them, they are more than can be told.
Does this say anything about a resurrection? No! Does it say anything about a messiah? No! Is this even a prophecy? No! This is one of the biggest and saddest examples of eisegesis. This is a psalm, a praise song of David giving thanks to YHWH. That's all. Sorry, no messianic prophecy here.
Psa. 40:6-8....His delight-the will of the Father....Jn. 4:34
Psalm 40:7-9 [6-8] Sacrifice and meal-offering Thou hast no delight in; mine ears hast Thou opened; burnt-offering and sin-offering hast Thou not required. (8) Then said I: 'Lo, I am come with the roll of a book which is prescribed for me; (9) I delight to do Thy will, O my God; yea, Thy law is in my inmost parts.'
Is this a messianic prophecy? Were the last couple of verses? No! David is still saying that he knows that YHWH would prefer obedience and loyalty to his book of Torah than sacrifices. David wants to keep the teachings of YHWH. That's it. Nothing magical, mystical, or messianic! The part concerning his ears being open is a reference to Exodus 21:6 where a servant doesn't want to leave his master and thus has his ear pierced in order to symbolize perpetual servitude.
Psa. 40:9....He was to preach the Righteousness in Israel....Mt. 4:17
Psalms 40:10 [9 in christian versions] I have preached righteousness in the great congregation, lo, I did not refrain my lips; O YHWH, Thou knowest.
So if David is talking for the past verses, then who could be talking now??? OK, you guessed it! Alexander the Great! OK, a little joke. But David is still talking about him preaching righteousness. That's it. No messianic prophecy here. Try the next one.
These aren't messianic prophecies, they're about David. There is nothing in the passage that makes it specifically refer to messiah, and as a song for others, it can refer to all who sing/read it in the same mindset.
Psa. 40:14...Confronted by adversaries in the Garden...Jn. 18:4-6
Psalms 40:15 [14 in christian versions] Let them be ashamed and abashed together that seek after my soul to sweep it away; let them be turned backward and brought to confusion that delight in my hurt.
Man, what a descriptive description of Yeshua's adversaries confronting him in the garden! It's so picturesque I can't even see it.
OK, seriously, this is no messianic prophecy. David is still speaking and asking for YHWH's deliverance. There is nothing here that talks of any garden scene unless maybe, just maybe, you're reading messianic messages into the text.
To round up this whole section of Psalm chapter 40, please note verse 13 [12]. Is it the case that once again the sinless Yeshua is overtaken by his iniquities? Some Jews would say yes, thinking he was killed for being a false prophet, a magician, and a rebel stirring up an uprising. I won't go so far. I'll just say, this verse doesn't fit the picture of a sinless Yeshua. The whole chapter isn't about him, but about the writer: David.
Psa. 41:9.....Betrayed by a familiar friend.....Jn. 13:18
Psalm 41:10 [verse 9 in christian versions] Even my ally, in whom I trusted, who eats my bread, has magnified deceit against me.
Once again, this is a psalm written by David. It cannot refer to a sinless Yeshua since verse 5 [or 4 in christian versions] shows the writer begging YHWH to heal him because he had sinned against YHWH. The context shows it is no prophecy thus it needs no fulfilment.
Psa. 45:2...Words of Grace come from His lips...Lu. 4:22
Psalm 45:3 [2] You are more handsome than the children of men; grace has been poured on your lips; therefore God has blessed you for ever.
Psa. 45:6...To own the title, God or Elohim...Heb. 1:8
Psa. 45:7...A special anointing by the Holy Spirit...Mt.3:16; Heb.1:9
Psa. 45:7, 8...Called the Christ (Messiah or Anointed)...Lu. 2:11
Psalm 45:7-9 [6-8] (7) Your throne, judge [Heb. "elohiym"], [is] forever and onwards, the sceptre of equity [being] the sceptre of your kingdom. (8) You loved righteousness, and hated wickedness; because of this Deity, your Deity, has anointed you with the oil of joy above thy fellows. (9) Myrrh, and aloes, and cassia are all your garments; out of ivory palaces stringed instruments have made you glad.
Is this a messianic verse? Maybe. It's about a king (verse 2 [1]), which excludes Yeshua already, who never ruled anything in his life and never sat on the throne of David.
The whole psalm appears to be talking about the glory of a king and a little note for a lady who wants him. It appears to be possibly a royal wedding song. Looking at the pictures, it could be written about Solomon. But let's deal with the text and see if it is messianic.
Verse 7 [6] is a difficult one (in a way) since other translations vary a lot. Here are some examples.
"Thy throne given of God is for ever and ever" JPS
"Your divine throne is everlasting" NJPS
"Your throne is like God's throne, eternal" NEB
"Your throne, O God, is forever and ever!" KJV
"ho thronos sou ho theos eis ton aiona tou aionos" LXX [Lit: your throne deity into the age of ages, or normally translated as "your throne, God, [is] for ever and ever."]
"You are God and you will rule forever as king" CEV
"The kingdom that God has given you will last forever and ever." GNB
"Your throne is the God's throne ever and always" The Message.
"God is your throne forever and ever". RSV
Now it is not a problem if the psalmist is calling this king "elohiym" (commonly translated "god") since it can apply to both man and YHWH. Moshe was an elohiym to Pharaoh (Exo 7:1) and judges/rulers were known as elohiym (Ps 82:6). The fact that it could be talking about the similarities with YHWH's throne can be seen in 1 Chronicles 29:23 where Solomon sits on the throne of YHWH in the place of his father David. Either way, whatever the interpretation, it points most likely to Solomon.
This is further reinforced by the fact that the next verse says that this elohiym in verse 7 [6] has an elohiym over him who anoints him with the oil of gladness. YHWH has no elohiym over him. So even if YHWH comes down to earth, there is still no one over him. Splitting him apart doesn't really help either, but confuses matters.
Speaking of elohiym, it is a fact that a number of trinitarians try to say that elohiym is a plural word. When it occurs in reference to Deity, they say it means a plurality of persons, namely the three persons in one God. I'm not gonna dispute that notion right now. I just want to point out that, if this verse was talking about Jesus, then he is being called elohiym and his father is being called elohiym. Applying their argument about "elohiym", then this would mean that Jesus is a trinity, a plurality of persons, and his Father is a trinity, a plurality of persons. That makes it 6 persons in the trinity, right? In actual fact, their argument about elohiym and the trinity makes no sense when we see how the word is used in scripture and how it is used here.
Let's just take this simply. It is talking about a king, thus not Yeshua (Jesus), most likely king Solomon who actually ruled on the throne of YHWH. What do ivory palaces have to do with Yeshua (Jesus)?
It must be said that there are some problems with the "Solomon" since he wasn't really in any battles. Some Jews see this verse as messianic.
Context, the fact of actual rulership, and knowledge of the Jewish Bible are the greatest weaknesses to the idea that this could point to Yeshua. With such weakness, it is best to just drop this and move to the next messianic attempt.
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