Messianic Prophecies Refuted: Genesis-Deuteronomy

Co-written by Raine Miller

Introduction: Understanding of the definition of messianic prophecy when dealing with Christians

"Messianic" - Concerning a specific future anointed Davidic king of Israel.

"Prophecy" - A message concerning a time ahead of the speaker, in his future.

Thus put together, a messianic prophecy is a text concerning a specific future anointed king of Israel, and that text points to something in the FUTURE (that being the specific time frame of this "messiah") in the eyes of the person giving the message.

What does it mean to say that a prophecy is fulfilled? That means that it has happened. It means that you should look no more for fulfilment because it has reached its goal, its completion. A prophecy that hasn't happened (yet), or is yet to be completed isn't fulfilled.

It is claimed that Jesus fulfilled over 300 "messianic prophecies". Our purpose is to show that these claims are either a) not prophecies at all, or b) taken out of context.

The word "moshiach" means anointed one. It is found 37 times in the TaNaKh. Priests, prophets and kings were anointed, as were all things connected to the tabernacle, and temple.

One of the major points against Yeshua being moshiach is that he was never anointed with oil, as prescribed.

Just for the record, I did not make up this list by myself in order to build straw men and smash them down. I did not concoct a list in order to make my point look good. I used to be a christian, and it was by looking through this list, at each scripture IN CONTEXT, trying my best to let the scripture speak for itself, I finally found that I had no reason to believe that Yeshua was the messiah.

It was taken from The Hope Of Israel website, and I believe there are other websites that have variations of these lists (see also the Messiah Revealed website to see some more). There may even be more scriptures that I didn't list. If it happens that time gets on and these links become broken, at least there'll still be this resource should they give you any of the same ones.

Verse numbers may differ from christian versions, since Jewish Bibles sometimes are versed differently.

Over 300 Messianic Prophecies

Gen 3:15 Seed of a woman (virgin birth) Luke 1:35, Mt 1:18-20
3:15.....He will bruise Satan's head.....Heb. 2:14, 1 Jn. 3:18

Genesis 3:15 And I will put enmity between you and the woman, and between your seed and her seed; they shall bruise your head, and you shall bruise their heel.'

Also, looking at the context, there are only 4 characters: YHWH, Adam, the snake and Eve. There is no mysterious evil being called "satan" in the text. That has to be read into the scripture. So there is no "satan" to have his head bruised.

Concerning any messiah, he would be the seed, or offspring, of a woman, as all humans have been since creation.

The word seed (zera in Hebrew), and its successive use are plural, indicating multiple people, e.g. Gen 15:5 which says that Avraham's seed (in the singular in Hebrew) will be many, like the stars of heaven (see also Gen 13:6, 15:13). There is nothing contextually to suggest that it refers to one specific person when it can be seen that the curse was only put on Eve and her biological descendants, and the snake and its biological descendants, i.e. snakes, with no reference to some spiritual being called "satan". (Remember, there is no "satan" in the text of this scripture. It has to be read in!)

Also the statement, "her seed" (as opposed to "his seed", the seed of her husband) shouldn't really be taken as a prophecy of a virgin birth. Similar phrases are used when address Hagar (Gen 16:10), and Rebecca (Gen 24:60).

The simple meaning of the text is that there will be a general hatred between humans and snakes. The snake, in its low position, with normally strike the leg. And the man, in his upright position will generally strike its head.

It is not a messianic prophecy. For more info, please see and look for the article about Genesis 3:15.


Gen 5:24 The bodily ascension to heaven illustrated Mk 6:19

Genesis 5:21-24 (21) And Enoch lived sixty and five years, and begat Methushelah. (22) And Enoch walked with God after he had begotten Methushelah three hundred years; and begat sons and daughters. (23) And all the days of Enoch were three hundred sixty and five years. (24) And Enoch walked with God, and he was no more; for God had taken him.

Is this a messianic prophecy? Always remember what a messianic prophecy is! Is this passage a prophecy? No, it is just historical narrative. It just says what happened to Enoch in the past and nothing more than that. Is it messianic? There is nothing in the text that refers or even hints to a anointed king of anything.

But the person who compiles this list of "messianic" prophecies, would have us believe that this refers to or at least illustrates a bodily ascension to heaven. Now the writer of the list is mistaken in pointing to Mark 6:19 which says nothing about an ascension. He must mean Mark 16:19 where the new testament writer speaks of Jesus going into heaven. But tell me: what do the words of Genesis say? It says that Enoch was no more, meaning he was absent, nowhere to be found. And why? Because God took him! Now where did God take him, according to the text of Genesis 5:24? An honest person would say that we don't know where God took Enoch to. Since christians don't accept the oral tradition of the Jews, we won't play their game of "pick and mix" with the bits of Judaism that they like while they rejected and insult the formation of the oral tradition.

All christians really have is the text, and the text doesn't illustrate a bodily ascension. It is not messianic. It is not even a prophecy. So on all counts, the writer of the "messianic" prophecy list has absolutely nothing.


Gen. 9:26, 27...The God of Shem will be the Son of Shem...Lu. 3:36

Genesis 9:26-27 (26) And he said: Blessed be YHWH, Deity of Shem; and let Canaan be their servant. (27) May Deity enlarge Japheth, and he shall dwell in the tents of Shem; and let Canaan be their servant.

Is this a messianic prophecy? No, it's the curse Noah bestowed upon Canaan. Says nothing about the Deity of Shem being the 'Son' of Shem.


Gen. 12:3...As Abraham's seed, will bless all nations...Acts. 3:25, 26

Genesis 12:1-3 (1) Now YHWH said unto Abram: 'Go, for yourself, out of your country, and from your birth-place, and from your father's house, unto the land that I will show thee. (2) And I will make you into a great nation, and I will bless you, and make your name great; and [you], be a blessing! (3) And I will bless them that bless you, and he who curses you, I will curse; and in you shall all the families of the earth be blessed.'

Gen. 12:7...The Promise made to Abraham's Seed...Gal. 3:16

(7) And YHWH appeared unto Abram, and said: 'To your seed will I give this land'; and he built there an altar unto YHWH, who appeared to him.

Rather than being messianic prophecies, these verses are part of the promise given to Abraham, linked to what is stated in Gen 12:1-2, about the huge number of his offspring, and the fact that his offspring will be given Canaan. This can be easily seen looking at the context of Abraham's blessing and when the Lord reiterates it. He says in Genesis 13:15 that he will give the land to Abraham and his seed. But in the very next verse, Genesis 13:16, he says that this seed will be numerous like the dust of the ground. Another example we can use is in Genesis 15:5 where the Almighty says that this seed again will be numerous, but this time like the stars of heaven. In the same chapter, in verse 13, that seed will be slaves in a land not theirs, meaning more than one person in this "seed". Again in the same chapter, but in verses 18-21, this seed is given a certain length of land, from the river of Egypt to the great river, Euphrates, and all the tribes in it. Now this cannot be talking about a messiah who is supposed to rule the whole world. But instead this perfectly reflects the promises that were meant for the offspring of Abraham, the nation of Israel (see Numbers 34:9, Exodus 3:8, Deuteromony 7:1, Joshua 3:10). It is clearly seen in those verses that the promises belong to Israel as a nation, not just one single messianic figure.

There is nothing explicitly messianic here.


Gen. 14:18...A priest after Melchizedek...Heb. 6:20
Gen. 14:18........A King also........Heb. 7:2
Gen. 14:18...The Last Supper foreshadowed...Mt. 26:26-29

Genesis 14:18-20 (18) And Malki-tzedek king of Salem brought forth bread and wine; and he was a priest [belonging] to Deity, Most High. (19) And he blessed him, and said: 'Blessed be Abram [belonging] to Deity, Most High, Possessor of heaven and earth; (20) and blessed be Deity, Most High, who has delivered your enemies into your hand.' And he gave him a tenth of all.

Messianic prophecy? No, this is simply an account of a victory meal Abraham shared with some kings. Reading it in context, in the plain sense, it is a historical narrative with no hint of prophecy. It may be the intent of others to make it into a prophetic text, but that is eisegesis (reading something into the text that isn't naturally there). To draw personal meaning from a text is one thing. To declare it prophetic because of the desire for symbolism that would point to a certain person is something else that is not valid. A Christian may declare the meaning ascribed to this text is of the holy spirit since it is in their new testament, but the test of any 'spirit' is to look at the text in context and see if it really says what is being claimed. This principle can help in many other texts.

Bread and wine are mentioned together 18 other times in the TaNaKh (Torah [Instruction, "Law"], Nevi'im [Prophets], Kethuvim [Writings], the Jewish Bible) that are not marked a foreshadowing, simply because bread and wine were consumed.


Gen. 17:19.......The Seed of Isaac.......Rom. 9:7

Genesis 17:19 And God said: 'No, but Sarah your wife shall bear you a son; and you shall call his name Isaac; and I will establish My covenant with him for an everlasting covenant for his seed after him.

Seed (zera in Hebrew) is used as a collective noun, i.e., it means a group of something, like "sheep". This isn't speaking of one descendant, but all descendants of Abraham (compare with Gen 13:16; 15:5; 26:4 all of which show that, in this context, the Hebrew word 'zera', which is translated 'seed' has a plural connotation). This is not a messianic prophecy.


Gen. 22:8...The Lamb of God promised...Jn. 1:29

(8) And Abraham said: 'G-d will provide Himself the lamb for a burnt-offering, my son.' So they went both of them together.

Is this a messianic prophecy? Looking at the plain (Peshat) meaning, no. The style of the text is historical narrative, not prophetic at all. It refers specifically to the ram, provided by YHWH, for Abraham, as we see here;

(13) And Abraham lifted up his eyes, and looked, and behold behind him a ram caught in the thicket by his horns. And Abraham went and took the ram, and offered him up for a burnt-offering in the stead of his son.

Also, Yeshua was not a burnt offering. This does not apply to him.


Gen. 22:18...As Isaac's seed, will bless all nations...Gal. 3:16

(14) And Abraham called the name of that place YHWH-jireh; as it is said to this day: 'In the mount where YHWH is seen.' (15) And the angel of YHWH called unto Abraham a second time out of heaven, (16) and said: 'By Myself have I sworn, saith YHWH, because thou hast done this thing, and hast not withheld thy son, thine only son, (17) that in blessing I will bless thee, and in multiplying I will multiply thy seed as the stars of the heaven, and as the sand which is upon the seashore; and thy seed shall possess the gate of his enemies; (18) and in thy seed shall all the nations of the earth be blessed; because thou hast hearkened to My voice.'

Again, seed (zera in Hebrew) is plural in this case, referring to family, race, posterity, not just one person. Paul misquotes the verse by making it singular. This is not a messianic prophecy.


Gen.26:2-5...The Seed of Isaac promised as the Redeemer...Heb.11:18

(2) And YHWH appeared unto him, and said: 'Go not down unto Egypt; dwell in the land which I shall tell thee of. (3) Sojourn in this land, and I will be with thee, and will bless thee; for unto thee, and unto thy seed, I will give all these lands, and I will establish the oath which I swore unto Abraham thy father; (4) and I will multiply thy seed as the stars of heaven, and will give unto thy seed all these lands; and by thy seed shall all the nations of the earth bless themselves; (5) because that Abraham hearkened to My voice, and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes, and My laws.'

Promised as redeemer? Where is a redeemer mentioned in this passage? This is merely a reiteration of the promise given to Abraham.


Gen. 49:10...The time of His coming... Lu. 2:1-7; Gal. 4:4
Gen. 49:10.......The Seed of Judah.......Lu. 3:33
Gen. 49:10......Called Shiloh or One Sent......Jn. 17:3
Gen. 49:10...To come before Judah lost identity...Jn. 11:47-52
Gen. 49:10...To Him shall the obedience of the people be...Jn. 10:16

(10) The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor the ruler's staff from between his feet, until Shiloh comes [or, until he comes to Shiloh]; and unto him shall the obedience of the peoples be.

This is generally agreed upon as a messianic verse. But its meaning has been questioned for some time, especially the mysterious 'Shiloh'. Just look at the different ways people translate this verse. Both Jewish and Christian renderings of this verse don't agree on what means what because of the fact that the Hebrew words translated "Shiloh" and "obedience" are exceedingly rare words, and they are key to understanding what exactly is going on. Here are some examples.

(Good New Bible) Judah will hold the royal scepter, And his descendants will always rule. Nations will bring him tribute And bow in obedience before him.

(World English Bible) The scepter will not depart from Judah, Nor the ruler's staff from between his feet, Until he comes to whom it belongs. To him will the obedience of the peoples be.

(Young's Literal Translation) The sceptre turneth not aside from Judah, And a lawgiver from between his feet, Till his Seed come; And his is the obedience of peoples.

(King James Version) The sceptre shall not depart from Judah, nor a lawgiver from between his feet, until Shiloh come; and unto him shall the gathering of the people be.

(Bible in Basic English) The rod of authority will not be taken from Judah, and he will not be without a law-giver, till he comes who has the right to it, and the peoples will put themselves under his rule.

(1899 Douay Rheims Version) The sceptre shall not be taken away from Juda, nor a ruler from his thigh, till he come that is to be sent, and he shall be the expectation of nations.

(LXX [Septuagint] in English) A ruler shall not fail from Juda, nor a prince from his loins, until there come the things stored up for him; and he is the expectation of nations.

(Hebrew Names Version) The scepter will not depart from Yehudah, Nor the ruler's staff from between his feet, Until he comes to whom it belongs. To him will the obedience of the peoples be.

And these are only the Christian versions. Although there is a general agreement that it refers to "messiah", it is best to ascertain what is clear before dealing with what is unclear.

What is clear is that this is a promise/blessing to Judah from his father, Jacob. The sceptre or rod, and the ruler's staff refer to the pre-eminence of Judah over his brothers, meaning that he shall be ruler over his brothers.

The next phrase is the difficult bit as it is translated a number of different ways with different connotations, the most popular being 'until Shiloh comes'. The word 'until' doesn't necessarily refer to a cut-off point, i.e., it doesn't mean that after the event has happened, Judah will no longer rule or have the sceptre. The link following this explanation will give more information into that fact.

This verse has been used to show that after Yeshua came Judah lost the sceptre since there has been no king in Israel, especially from the tribe of Judah since. But there have been a number of times in Judah's history that he lost rulership, like during the Babylonian exile, and when the Romans took over Israel, centuries before Yeshua came on the scene. Someone tried to say that it happened truly when the power to do capital punishment was taken away from Israel during Yeshua's lifetime, but what scripture said that was the sign of rulership? Israel still inhabited their own land at that time, but under foreign occupation, meaning that for the longest time, they had no king of their own, no true rulership.

The plain meaning of this verse doesn't clearly point to Yeshua as being messiah or Shiloh. Yeshua never even ruled Israel.

For more information see: There's an article there about Shiloh and the sceptre of Judah.


Ex. 3:13, 14........The Great "I Am".......Jn. 4:26

(13) And Moses said unto God: 'Behold, when I come unto the children of Israel, and shall say unto them: The God of your fathers hath sent me unto you; and they shall say to me: What is His name? What shall I say unto them?' (14) And God said unto Moses: 'I AM THAT I AM'; and He said: 'Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel: I AM hath sent me unto you.' (15) And God said moreover unto Moses: 'Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel: YHWH, the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you; this is My name for ever, and this is My memorial unto all generations.

This is YHWH stating His name. Period. There is NOTHING inherently messianic about it. Once again, reading INTO the text and not letting it speak for itself. You have to read IN the idea that Yeshua, the man, is YHWH. Besides, when is Yeshua ever called YHWH?

What this christian is trying to do, in linking John 4:26 to this verse, is to say that whenever Jesus says "I am" or in the Greek, εγω ειμι, ego eimi, translated literally as "I am", he is saying that he is THE I AM of Exodus 3:14. This shows a lack of knowledge of the Greek language. The phrase "I am" in Greek simply means "I am [the one]" or "I am [he]". An example of this can be seen when Jesus is supposed to have healed a man born blind in John 9. After he has been healed, people are surprised to see the man born blind now seeing, so they wonder to themselves if this is really that man whom they knew to be born blind (John 9:8-9a). So they say, is this the same man, and the man who was healed says, "εγω ειμι", "ego eimi", "I am". This man was not claim to be the I AM of Exodus 3.

When Jesus uses the phrase, he is simply saying "I am [the one you are looking for, i.e. the messiah]". He is not saying "I am YHWH".

The Greek phrase, εγω ειμι, ego eimi, doesn't even correspond to the Hebrew phrase that was used in Exodus 3:14 as can be seen in the way it was translated in the Septuagint, the ancient Greek translation of the books of Moses, which is older than the christian scriptures, the "new testament". The Septuagint translates the words "I am who I am" in Exodus 3:14 as, εγω ειμι ο ων, ego eimi ho hown, meaning "I am the being". In the second part of Exodus 3:14, where the Hebrew says, "I AM has sent me", the Septuagint has it as "The Being [ho hown, not ego eimi] has sent me." The Jews who read the Septuagint would have seen that there was no link between Jesus was saying, "I am", and the words used in Exodus 3:14.

Lets read the scripture in context. It is a historical narrative where YHWH is revealing himself to Moshe and there is nothing prophetic about it unless you want it to make it so (i.e. eisegesis).


Ex. 12:5...A Lamb without blemish...1 Pet. 1:19

(5) Your lamb shall be without blemish, a male of the first year; ye shall take it from the sheep, or from the goats;

Ex. 12:13...The blood of the Lamb saves from wrath...Rom. 5:8

(13) And the blood shall be to you for a token upon the houses where ye are; and when I see the blood, I will pass over you, and there shall no plague be upon you to destroy you, when I smite the land of Egypt.

These deal with the Passover lamb. It is a one-time instruction based in a historical context. Not prophecy, and not messianic. There is nothing in these verses for us to assume that the animal, the lamb, is really supposed to be a man. Once again, it is reading in an idea, an idea foreign to Torah.


Ex. 12:21-27...Christ is our Passover...1 Cor. 5:7

(21) Then Moses called for all the elders of Israel, and said unto them: 'Draw out, and take you lambs according to your families, and kill the Passover lamb. (22) And ye shall take a bunch of hyssop, and dip it in the blood that is in the basin, and strike the lintel and the two side-posts with the blood that is in the basin; and none of you shall go out of the door of his house until the morning. (23) For YHWH will pass through to smite the Egyptians; and when He seeth the blood upon the lintel, and on the two side-posts, YHWH will pass over the door, and will not suffer the destroyer to come in unto your houses to smite you. (24) And ye shall observe this thing for an ordinance to thee and to thy sons for ever. (25) And it shall come to pass, when ye be come to the land which YHWH will give you, according as He hath promised, that ye shall keep this service. (26) And it shall come to pass, when your children shall say unto you: What mean ye by this service? (27) That ye shall say: It is the sacrifice of YHWH'S Passover, for that He passed over the houses of the children of Israel in Egypt, when He smote the Egyptians, and delivered our houses.' And the people bowed the head and worshipped.

These are very specific instructions, to be followed forever. How this makes any person 'the Passover' makes no sense. This is not a prophecy, it's a command.


Ex. 12:46...Not a bone of the Lamb to be broken...Jn. 19:31-36

(46) In one house shall it be eaten; thou shalt not carry forth aught of the flesh abroad out of the house; neither shall ye break a bone thereof.

Again, this is not a prophecy; it is speaking of how to observe the Passover.


Ex. 15:2...His exaltation predicted as Yeshua...Acts 7:55, 56

(2) YHWH is my strength and song, and He is become my salvation; this is my God, and I will glorify Him; my father's God, and I will exalt Him.

Ex. 15:11...His Character-Holiness...Luke 1:35; Acts 4:27

(11) Who is like unto Thee, O YHWH, among the mighty? Who is like unto Thee, glorious in holiness, fearful in praises, doing wonders?

The children of Israel had been delivered from the enemy. YHWH was their salvation, and they were praising Him for it. There is nothing messianic, nor prophetic about these verses.

The author of these "messianic prophecies" may be trying to produce a link between what he believes to be the Hebrew name of Jesus, i.e., Yeshua, and the fact that the Hebrew word used in this verse which is translated "salvation" is y'shuah. But this method is flawed.

"Yeshua" is a proper name, a name pointing only to a person, and there were a good number of people in those times called Yeshua (e.g., the writer of the book, Ecclesiasticus in the apocrypha [religious books not in the bible] called Yeshua (or Jesus) Ben Sira, or another guy in the bible called Jeshua [in Hebrew, Yeshua], 1 Chronicles 24:11; Ezra 3:8). The word "y'shuah" is a noun, which only refers to a concept of deliverance and help and not strictly to a person. In the context of Exodus 15, it is only showing the concept that YHWH has saved his people, Israel, from the Egyptians. That is the plain understanding of the text and all it says. Once again, beware of eisegesis. It plainly says nothing about a messiah.

Also, both words, Yeshua and y'shuah, are spelt differently, and that can mean a lot in hebrew. A difference in spelling in Hebrew, as well as english, can mean the difference between killing someone (yiqtol - Heb. he shall kill), and being killed by someone (yiqatel - Heb. he shall be killed), between a man (pronounced "'ish" in Hebrew and spelt alef-yod-shin), fire ('esh, spelt alef-shin) and a woman (ishah, spelt alef-shin-heh).

For those with Hebrew fonts, and remembering Hebrew is read right-to-left (backwards to english), the difference in spelling is:

And that doesn't even include the vowels, which makes the pronunciation of each word a bit different!

Now Yeshua, in Hebrew, in pronounced "Yair-shoo-a" or "Yay-shoo-a", and Yeshua is pronounced "y-shoo-ah". The spelling is different in that Yeshua starts with a long "e" vowel and ends with a short "a" (like in "pat") and the Hebrew letter "ayin". The word y'eshuah, starts with a very short "e" vowel and ends with a long "a" sound (like in "calm") and the Hebrew letter "heh".

Just to mark the last difference, Yeshua is a masculine word, and y'shuah is a feminine word.

There is no reason to believe that just because Yeshua comes from a word meaning salvation, and y'shuah means salvation they are linked prophetically. There is a word, a noun, "naval" (or nabal) which means fool or foolish. There is also a proper name in the bible also called "Naval" (or Nabal, the husband of Abigial, 1 Samuel 25:3). That doesn't mean that every time the noun "nabal" or "fool" is used in scripture that the person "Nabal" is being mentioned. That doesn't make any sense. In the same way, because y'shuah is used, there is no reason, to think that it is linked to any person called Yeshua, especially based on the passage in which it is used.

This should refute this argument when it is used in other places in the Tanakh (Hebrew Bible).


Ex. 17:6...The Spiritual Rock of Israel...1 Cor. 10:4

(6) Behold, I will stand before thee there upon the rock in Horeb; and thou shalt smite the rock, and there shall come water out of it, that the people may drink.' And Moses did so in the sight of the elders of Israel.

To claim this is a messianic prophecy is really reaching. The people were thirsty, YHWH told Moshe to strike the rock, and he did. History, not prophecy. End of story.


Ex. 33:19...His Character-Merciful...Lu. 1:72

(19) And He said: 'I will make all My goodness pass before thee, and will proclaim the name of YHWH before thee; and I will be gracious to whom I will be gracious, and will show mercy on whom I will show mercy.'

YHWH is speaking to Moshe, of Himself. In the next verse we read; (20) And He said: 'Thou canst not see My face, for man shall not see Me and live.'

How many people saw Yeshua's face and lived?

This is not prophetic.


Lev.14:11...The leper cleansed-Sign to priesthood..Lu.5:12-14; Acts 6:7

(11) And the priest that cleanseth him shall set the man that is to be cleansed, and those things, before YHWH, at the door of the tent of meeting.

Context will eliminate any possibility that a) this is a messianic prophecy, and b) this has anything to do with Yeshua, and a leper. Yeshua did none of the following;

(12) And the priest shall take one of the he-lambs, and offer him for a guilt-offering, and the log of oil, and wave them for a wave-offering before YHWH. (13) And he shall kill the he-lamb in the place where they kill the sin-offering and the burnt-offering, in the place of the sanctuary; for as the sin-offering is the priest's, so is the guilt-offering; it is most holy. (14) And the priest shall take of the blood of the guilt-offering, and the priest shall put it upon the tip of the right ear of him that is to be cleansed, and upon the thumb of his right hand, and upon the great toe of his right foot. (15) And the priest shall take of the log of oil, and pour it into the palm of his own left hand. (16) And the priest shall dip his right finger in the oil that is in his left hand, and shall sprinkle of the oil with his finger seven times before YHWH. (17) And of the rest of the oil that is in his hand shall the priest put upon the tip of the right ear of him that is to be cleansed, and upon the thumb of his right hand, and upon the great toe of his right foot, upon the blood of the guilt-offering. (18) And the rest of the oil that is in the priest's hand he shall put upon the head of him that is to be cleansed; and the priest shall make atonement for him before YHWH. (19) And the priest shall offer the sin-offering, and make atonement for him that is to be cleansed because of his uncleanness; and afterward he shall kill the burnt-offering. (20) And the priest shall offer the burnt-offering and the meal-offering upon the altar; and the priest shall make atonement for him, and he shall be clean


Lev.16:15-17...Prefigures Christ's once-for-all death...Heb. 9:7-14

(15) Then shall he kill the goat of the sin-offering, that is for the people, and bring his blood within the veil, and do with his blood as he did with the blood of the bullock, and sprinkle it upon the ark-cover, and before the ark-cover. (16) And he shall make atonement for the holy place, because of the uncleannesses of the children of Israel, and because of their transgressions, even all their sins; and so shall he do for the tent of meeting, that dwelleth with them in the midst of their uncleannesses. (17) And there shall be no man in the tent of meeting when he goeth in to make atonement in the holy place, until he come out, and have made atonement for himself, and for his household, and for all the assembly of Israel.

This takes place in the holy place of the tabernacle. The animal is killed by having its throat slit, its blood is sprinkled on the ark, and its carcass is taken outside of the camp to be burned. None of these things were done with/to Yeshua. It is not a prophecy, but a series of commands on how to observe Yom Kippur.


Lev.16:27...Suffering outside the Camp...Mt. 27:33; Heb. 13:11, 12

(27) And the bullock of the sin-offering, and the goat of the sin-offering, whose blood was brought in to make atonement in the holy place, shall be carried forth without the camp; and they shall burn in the fire their skins, and their flesh, and their dung.

Nowhere is suffering mentioned. These sin-offerings are already dead, having been slaughtered in the prescribed method. There is nothing messianic, nor prophetic about this passage.


Lev.17:11...The Blood-the life of the flesh...Mt. 26;28; Mk. 10:45
Lev.17:11...It is the blood that makes atonement...1 Jn. 3:14-18

11) For the life of the flesh is in the blood; and I have given it to you upon the altar to make atonement for your souls; for it is the blood that maketh atonement by reason of the life.

First let me state the obvious. The context is NOT prophecy. It is an instruction about what you can't eat, blood, and why you can't eat it.

The verses here are in a context. Please read the whole chapter, especially verses 10-14. You'll see that it is talking about the fact that people are not supposed to eat the blood of the animals they could eat. And why is that? The reason is stated in verse 11: because it is used for atonement. That's what it does say. But what it doesn't say is that blood is the ONLY means of atonement, as can be seen be the fact that there is a bloodless sin sacrifice (Lev 5:11-13).

Looking at the context of Torah (the law, the instruction), it should also be seen that it is not just that case that you can give any-any blood in an animal sacrifice. It has to be from among the clean animals, and the stipulations are laid down in each law. Throughout Israelite history, it has always been ANIMAL sacrifice that was commanded and given, not human sacrifice. Since the Torah stipulates which animals to be used, we cannot include human blood as a means for atonement, which rules out Yeshua's death.

So it is true that the context is talking about blood. But because of other parts of the Torah, and the context (which is talking about eating animals), this cannot be seen as a messianic prophecy.  

For more information see; and and look for the article called "Don't Mess with the Blood [Leviticus 17:11]".


Lev.23:36-37...The Drink-offering: "If any man thirst....Jn. 19:31-36

(36) Seven days ye shall bring an offering made by fire unto YHWH; on the eighth day shall be a holy convocation unto you; and ye shall bring an offering made by fire unto YHWH; it is a day of solemn assembly; ye shall do no manner of servile work. (37) These are the appointed seasons of YHWH, which ye shall proclaim to be holy convocations, to bring an offering made by fire unto YHWH, a burnt-offering, and a meal-offering, a sacrifice, and drink-offerings, each on its own day;

The drink offering always accompanied a meal offering. It is a sacrifice given BY people, not TO people. Whoever felt this was a messianic prophecy didn't understand sacrifices. It's not.


Num. 9:12...Not a bone of Him broken...John 19:31-36

(12) They shall leave none of it unto the morning, nor break a bone thereof; according to all the statute of the Passover they shall keep it. .

Looking at the context, we see this verse is speaking of the Passover sacrifice; Num 9:11-12: "they shall offer it in the second month, on the fourteenth day of the month, at twilight. They shall eat it with unleavened bread and bitter herbs, and they shall not leave any of it over until morning. They shall not break a bone of it. They shall offer it in strict accord with the law of the Passover sacrifice."

He was not offered in strict accordance with the law of the Passover sacrifice, he was not eaten with unleavened bread, and bitter herbs, and his corpse was not burnt up. While none of his bones were broken, the rest of the passage does not apply to him, and is not a prophecy.


Num. 21:9...The serpent on a pole-Christ lifted up...Jn. 3:14-18

(9) And Moses made a serpent of brass, and set it upon the pole; and it came to pass, that if a serpent had bitten any man, when he looked unto the serpent of brass, he lived.

Lets take a look at what became of the brass serpent;

2 Kings 18 :(4) He removed the high places, and broke the pillars, and cut down the Asherah; and he broke in pieces the brazen serpent that Moses had made; for unto those days the children of Israel did offer to it; and it was called Nehushtan.

They turned it into an idol. It had to be destroyed. This may be a prophecy, but not quite what the compiler of this list had in mind.


Num. 24:17...Time: "I shall see him, but not now."...Gal. 4:4

(15) And he took up his parable, and said: The saying of Balaam the son of Beor, and the saying of the man whose eye is opened; (16) the saying of him who heareth the words of God, and knoweth the knowledge of the Most High, who seeth the vision of the Almighty, fallen down, yet with opened eyes:

(17) I see him, but not now; I behold him, but not nigh; there shall step forth a star out of Jacob, and a scepter shall rise out of Israel, and shall smite through the corners of Moab, and break down all the sons of Seth.

This is part of a prophecy given to Balak, by Balaam. Reading on, we see very specific things that applied to that time period;

(18) And Edom shall be a possession, Seir also, even his enemies, shall be a possession; while Israel doeth valiantly. (19) And out of Jacob shall one have dominion, and shall destroy the remnant from the city. (20) And he looked on Amalek, and took up his parable, and said: Amalek was the first of the nations; but his end shall come to destruction. (21) And he looked on the Kenite, and took up his parable, and said: Though firm be thy dwelling-place, and though thy nest be set in the rock; (22) Nevertheless Kain shall be wasted; how long? Asshur shall carry thee away captive. (23) And he took up his parable, and said: Alas, who shall live after God hath appointed him? (24) But ships shall come from the coast of Kittim, and they shall afflict Asshur, and shall afflict Eber, and he also shall come to destruction.

Besides, if this was a messianic prophecy fulfilled by Yeshua, when did he 'smite through the corners of Moab, and break down the sons of Seth'?


Deut. 18:15..."This is of a truth that prophet."...Jn. 6:14
Deut. 18:15-16..."Had ye believed Moses, ye would believe me."...Jn. 5:45-47

(15) A prophet will YHWH thy God raise up unto thee, from the midst of thee, of thy brethren, like unto me; unto him ye shall hearken; (16) according to all that thou didst desire of YHWH thy God in Horeb in the day of the assembly, saying: 'Let me not hear again the voice of YHWH my God, neither let me see this great fire any more, that I die not.'

Deut. 18:18...Sent by the Father to speak His word...Jn. 8:28, 29

(18) I will raise them up a prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee; and I will put My words in his mouth, and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.

Deut. 18:19...Whoever will not hear must bear his sin...Jn. 12:15,

(19) And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto My words which he shall speak in My name, I will require it of him.

It is possible that this is a collective singular, referring to all successive prophets. If it refers to one single prophet, the most likely candidate would be Joshua.

Rather than figure out who qualifies for this prophecy, lets see if anything could disqualify Yeshua. Deut. 18:(21) And if thou say in thy heart: 'How shall we know the word which YHWH hath not spoken?' (22) When a prophet speaketh in the name of YHWH, if the thing follow not, nor come to pass, that is the thing which YHWH hath not spoken; the prophet hath spoken it presumptuously, thou shalt not be afraid of him.

Did Yeshua say anything that did not come to pass? How about Mt. 24:34 Verily I say unto you, this generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.

This example alone disqualifies him for the position of 'prophet like unto Moshe'. It's not a prophecy concerning him. For more information, please see; and look for the article called "Deuteronomy 18:9-22 - Is it about A Particular Prophet?".

Also, once again I would ask you to look at the context of this verse in Deut 18. Look at the flow. You will see that before YHWH speaks about this prophet he says that he doesn't want Israel to use other forms of gaining "supernatural" knowledge because the nations use these forms and they are disgusting to him. He carries on to say that the way Israel is to know him and get information is through a prophet. Let me show you.

Deu 18:14 For these nations, that you shall dispossess, listen to those who practice sorcery, and to diviners; but as for you, Yahweh your Deity has not allowed you so to do.

Deu 18:15 Yahweh your Deity will raise up to you a prophet from the midst of you, of your brothers, like me; to him you shall listen;

Please read the context. This is a general instruction concerning prophecy, both the forbidden forms and instructed form given by YHWH. It is NOT a specific prophecy about a specific man.


Deut. 21:23...Cursed is he that hangs on a tree...Gal. 3:10-13

(23) his body shall not remain all night upon the tree, but thou shalt surely bury him the same day; for he that is hanged is a reproach unto God; that thou defile not thy land which YHWH thy God giveth thee for an inheritance.

This refers to a corpse being hung.  This is not a prophecy, but a law pertaining to every person that was guilty and executed according to Torah. It can apply to many people, not just one, and does not include crucifixion (an unacceptable form of execution according to Torah). Plus Yeshua wasn't supposed to be guilty of anything, so this law doesn't apply to him. And he cannot take up someone else's guilt according to Deut 24:16 and Ezek 18:20




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